Biblical Hebrew Forum

["John D Robinett" <jrobinett1 AT wi.rr.com>]

Peter,

Let me see if I am getting your point.  I am still young in Hebrew.  Since
the common practice is to use a petach or Kametz with a first H vowels in
the Qal Imperfect 3ms (Yiqtol), that explains the pronounciation dif?
Therefore, Yahweh (as a verb) would be Qal IMpf 3ms instead of Hifil impf
3ms correct?  And 'ehyeh would follow suit? being Qal impf 1cs.  I guess
another question (one which if it can be answered I will be shocked) is how
do we know that the Maseorites pointed it right.  Is it possible that it
should be attested in Hifil?  And how certain is it that HyH and YHWH can
not be in hifil form?  The later I presume is a basic question.

I am not sure if I have lamden, but I did not see any reference to this in
Seow.

Shalom
John
-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of Peter Kirk
Sent: Tuesday, August 12, 2003 3:03 PM
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Re:hwh in Hifil


On 12/08/2003 12:18, Joe Sprinkle wrote:

>
> As for the vowels, it is true that HAYAH as vocalized by the Masorets
> does not use the A vowel for imperfect preformatives Y, T and N for
> the Qal imperfect despite the guttural H first consonant.  I am not
> sure that the biblical writers as opposed to the Masorets didn't use
> the A vowels. You can't tell in an unvocalized text.  In any case,
> even the Masorets do use A vowels for preformatives of some First He
> forms such as the Qal imperfect of HALAM in Psalm 74:6 and Qal
> imperfect forms of HAPAK.  The form of Yahweh is personal names seem
> to confirm an A vowel under the initial yod.  If Yahweh is a verb (I
> cannot prove it is, but if it is), I can explain the A vowel as
> influenced by the first guttural as was in the case of these verbs.  I
> would then posit that Hebrew by the time the Masorets vocalized the
> text ceased to use the A vowel for preformatives of HYH, but that
> archaic (perhaps pre-Biblical) Hebrew was using the A vowel
> preformative when it created the form YAHWEH off of the verb HWH.
>
> I only claim a plausible case for this view, not an airtight one.
>
> Joe

Joe, as far as I can tell (from BDB, Gesenius and Lambdin) the A vowel
is in fact common, almost the norm, for the first vowel in the Qal
"imperfect" or YIQTOL form of verbs with H as the first root consonant.
At least Lambdin (pp. 305, 309) lists this as the paradigm for HPK, HRH
and HRG, notes that A or E apprears with HRS, and lists HDR, HGH and HMH
as using E regularly. Only HYH is listed as using I, and this could be a
deliberate change to avoid saying something too similar to the divine
name; or perhaps also by analogy with XYH which may use I in the Qal to
avoid confusion with the Hiphil, which would presumably be YAXYEH though
this is actually unattested in the "imperfect" - possibly Piel is used
instead to avoid sounding like the divine name.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/


_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew