Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Gerald Zimmerman <cyberkotic AT yahoo.com>]

So far, all posted theories seem possible, but we may
never know which is correct.  How can we know that an
unusable verb form like HIP.(IYL for HYH can never
intentionally be used to "coin a phrase" that cannot
be used for anything other than its intended purpose?
--- furuli AT online.no on
b-hebrew-request AT lists.ibiblio.org wisely wrote:
> 
> Dear Joe,
> 
> Your points regarding stative and fientive verbs are
> well taken. But 
> the verb HYH is possibly somewhat atypical. For
> instance, all cases 
> of HYH as a YIQTOL , 1. person singular, have future
> reference, 
> except possibly five cases. Looking at thebulk of
> examples, we will 
> find that "I will increase being" simply does not
> fit. But "I will 
> become" fits many of the examples. I therefore see
> no problem in 
> taking a Hiphil form in the sense "I will cause to
> become.". However, 
> there is no such Hiphil example, and I would not
> suggest that such a 
> form ever existed.  Another problem with the
> explanation of YHWH in 
> Exodus 3:14 as a Hiphil of HYH, is that a possible
> Hiphil form YAHWE 
> is hardly expected as a name that God gave himself.
> We would rather 
> expect )AHWE "I will cause to be".  So I see no way
> by which we can 
> come to know the etymology of YHWH or its
> pronunciation.
> 



=====
One of the multiple epersonalities of
Gerald Zimmerman
cyberkotic AT yahoo.com
http://www.geocities.com/cyberkotic/waynep1.html

I have not yet seen and will neither support nor condemn the following promos:

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