Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Jim West <jwest AT highland.net>]

At 08:47 AM 7/22/03 -0700, you wrote:
>It seems to me that these verb stems have the same
>consonantal FORMS, meaning that in ancient Hebrew (OT
>times), they were the same in FORM (since no vowel
>points were used) but different in FUNCTION. Is that
>correct?

J. Weingreen's brilliant "practical grammar of classical hebrew" discusses
these issues.  These various verbal forms did in fact have, on occassion,
consonantal indicators.  sometimes the pual form used the medial waw, for
instance.

In any event, your past couple of questions seem to indicate a basic need to
take in hand Weingreen, or even C.L. Seow's grammars.  They will answer
these and more and are fairly cheap on the used book market.

Best

Jim

+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

Jim West
Quartz Hill School of Theology
Adjunct Professor of Biblical Studies

Biblical Studies Resources
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest