Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Dear Bryon:

If you strip out the dots, doesn’t it make more sense to read, “…surely 
behold, for deception he made (the) scribes’ deceptive pen”? When reading the 
text without dots, it appears to me that the sentence makes clearer sense 
with the first “sheqer” also being indefinite. (The definitive article in 
paranthesis is only for English language translation.)

My understanding is that “sheqer” comes from a root meaning to deceive by any 
means, whereas would not a lie be from the root KZB?

Verse six indicated that devotion to the message was absent, but verse seven 
indicates that was because the people are ignorant, therefore verse eight, 
how can the people say that they are wise?

Karl.

----- Original Message -----
From: "B. M. Rocine" <brocine AT twcny.rr.com>
Date: Wed, 14 May 2003 22:46:52 -0400
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Jeremiah 8:8 - the pen of the scribes

> Hi Steve,
> 
> The Hebrew in question is lashsheqer `asah 'et sheqer sophrim.  Note that
> the first sheqer is definite as in *the* lie.  "For the lie he made..."  The
> verb `asah wants a direct object, so I will take 'et as the direct object.
> "For the lie he made a pen."  What lie?  The appositive answers:  sheqer
> sophrim, "lie of scribes."
> 
> "It was for the lie that he made a pen, lie of scribes."  The particular lie
> of scribes is in making a pen, a gesture that should equate with devotion to
> the text.  However, in the prohet's estimation, making a pen was a lying
> gesture in that devotion to the message was absent.
> 
> Shalom, Bryan
> 

-- 
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