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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Jeremiah 8:8 - the pen of the scribes

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  • From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
  • To: "B. M. Rocine" <brocine AT twcny.rr.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Jeremiah 8:8 - the pen of the scribes
  • Date: Thu, 15 May 2003 14:27:09 -0500

Dear Bryon:

If you strip out the dots, doesn’t it make more sense to read, “…surely
behold, for deception he made (the) scribes’ deceptive pen”? When reading the
text without dots, it appears to me that the sentence makes clearer sense
with the first “sheqer” also being indefinite. (The definitive article in
paranthesis is only for English language translation.)

My understanding is that “sheqer” comes from a root meaning to deceive by any
means, whereas would not a lie be from the root KZB?

Verse six indicated that devotion to the message was absent, but verse seven
indicates that was because the people are ignorant, therefore verse eight,
how can the people say that they are wise?

Karl.

----- Original Message -----
From: "B. M. Rocine" <brocine AT twcny.rr.com>
Date: Wed, 14 May 2003 22:46:52 -0400
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Jeremiah 8:8 - the pen of the scribes

> Hi Steve,
>
> The Hebrew in question is lashsheqer `asah 'et sheqer sophrim. Note that
> the first sheqer is definite as in *the* lie. "For the lie he made..." The
> verb `asah wants a direct object, so I will take 'et as the direct object.
> "For the lie he made a pen." What lie? The appositive answers: sheqer
> sophrim, "lie of scribes."
>
> "It was for the lie that he made a pen, lie of scribes." The particular lie
> of scribes is in making a pen, a gesture that should equate with devotion to
> the text. However, in the prohet's estimation, making a pen was a lying
> gesture in that devotion to the message was absent.
>
> Shalom, Bryan
>

--
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