Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Polycarp66 AT aol.com]

In a message dated 3/7/2003 10:21:34 AM Eastern Standard Time, 
Andrew.Wergeland AT mf.no writes:

> At 09:59 07.03.03 -0500, you wrote:
> >Taking BAC.AR in Is 25:4 as an adjective seems to make more sense to me
> >than as an infinitive construct. 
> >Would the infinitive construct be Qal (if so, why no Holem) or Hifil (if
> >so, why no He)? 
> 
> It could be qal on the pattern of stative verbs (an imperfect in Pr 4:12
> shows this pattern) and therefore have a patah instead of holem.
> 
> 
> >How are similar phrases (especially the identical phrase in 2Chron 15:4)
> >understood in HALOT and the database? 
> 
> The database sees 2C 15:4 also has inf.cstr.  Here's the list from HALOT
> under the root CRR concerning this expression (B.3.c.):  Dt 4:30 2S 22:7/Ps
> 18:7 Is 25:4 Hos 5:15 Ps 66:14 106:44 107:6.13.19.28 2C 15:4 
> 
> What about an inf.cstr. with the article?  A search in BibleWorks for an
> inf.cstr. preceded by the def.art. finds only this phrase (Deut. 4:30; 2
> Sam. 22:7; 2 Chr. 15:4; Ps. 18:7; 66:14; 106:44; 107:6, 13, 19, 28; Isa.
> 25:4; Hos. 5:15).
> 

I haven't quite checked every single instance you note, but it seems that all 
I have checked are adjectives.  Perhaps BW has them tagged incorrectly.

gfsomsel
>From Andrew.Wergeland AT mf.no  Mon Mar 10 02:45:14 2003
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> Does this help any?

Not really, I knew that these looked more like adjectives or nouns.  The
question is still:  why would both Westminster and HALOT make such a gross
"mistake" (i.e. interpreting what looks to be a adj./subst. as a verb in
inf. cstr. with a definite article)?



--
Stud.Theol. Andrew Wergeland
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