Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Andrew.Wergeland AT mf.no]

I seem to have misplaced the transliteration scheme that we use here on the
list.  Can anyone send it to me again?  I hope I can make myself clear
without it.

I am reading Is 25:4 and have come to the expression "baccar l-" about the
person in need:  when he is in distress.  HALOT says this baccar is a form
of the intransitive nuance of the verb crr (tsade resh resh):  to be
cramped.  Is it thinking inf. cstr.?  As it appears the Groves-Wheeler
Westminster Morphology and Lemma Database (WTM) (Copyright (c) 1991-1992
(Release 1), 1994 (Release 2), 1996-2000 (Release 3), and 2001 (release
3.5)) tags it?  My question is then, why does it appear to have the
definite article?  I know there are exceptions to just about every rule, is
this supposed to be an exception to the rule that inf.cstr. does not take a
def.art.?  Isn't it easier to interpret this as the noun 'car' (need) as we
find it in Is 26:16 according to HALOT itself?  

When it comes right down to it:  Does HALOT treat one baccar (Is 25:4) as a
verb, even though it violates an article rule, because it is followed by l-
and the other baccar (26:16) as a noun because it doesn't?  Is that a good
enough reason?



Andrew
--
Stud.Theol. Andrew Wergeland
Fakultetslærar (vik.) - Det gamle testamentet (Hebraisk) / 
Faculty Teacher (temp.) - Old Testament (Hebrew)

Det teologiske Menighetsfakultet / 
The Nowegian Lutheran School of Theology
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