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b-hebrew - Re: hapodeinu / hapod'cha

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  • From: "B. M. Rocine" <brocine AT twcny.rr.com>
  • To: "Jason A. Hare" <language_lover64801 AT yahoo.com>, "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.metalab.unc.edu>
  • Cc: <joplinhebrew AT yahoo.com>
  • Subject: Re: hapodeinu / hapod'cha
  • Date: Wed, 27 Nov 2002 17:49:07 -0500


Hi Jason,

I found the following similar constructions, most with common verbal roots
other than PDH. I think, therefore, that the costruction is not specific to
PDH, but is constrained by something in the context. Without having looked
at all the examples, I might guess that they all have God as the subject of
a participle being used as an appositive and with the pronominal suffix
naming the object of the verb. It may be an interesting example of
socio-linguistic impact on grammar.

Shalom, Bryan

Job 40:19
Isa. 9:12
Isa. 63:11
Dan. 11:6
Ps. 18:33
Deut. 8:14
Deut. 8:15
Deut. 8:16
Deut. 13:6
Deut. 13:11
Deut. 20:1
2 Sam. 1:24
Ps. 81:11
Ps. 103:4

you wrote:
> B-Hebrew list,
>
> I never come on this list anymore except when I have a question, but this
> has really been puzzling me.
>
> In the Siddur, I have noticed for a long time (and had no satisfaction
> with the form) in the Brachah after Kriat Sh'ma that it says: "hapodeinu
> miyad m'lachim." I know that normally a personal suffix makes the
> substantive (noun or participle) **definite** and that no article is added
> to it.
>
> The problem is that with this word "padah" (peh dalet heh) the article is
> added to a participial substantive even within the Tanakh.
>
> For example, Deuteronomy 13.5 (verse 6 in HB) says: "... v'hapod'cha
> mibeit avadim..." ("... and the one redeeming you from the house of
> slaves...). Why does PODEH take an article when it has a personal suffix?
>
> Please, send replies to joplinhebrew AT yahoo.com .
>
> Thanks so much in advance!
>
> Jason Hare
>

B. M. Rocine
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13206

ph: 315.437.6744
fx: 315.437.6766





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