Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Shane Christian" <ybd_talmidtorah AT hotmail.com>]

Thus says YHWH Tz’va-ot, “Behold!  A man named Sprout will sprout forth from 
the place he is, and build the Temple of YHWH.  And he will build the Temple 
of YHWH, and he shall assume majesty, and he shall sit on his throne and 
rule, and there will be a priest beside his throne,  and there shall come to 
be peaceful understanding between the two.”  Zechariah 6:12, 13

First, there is "w'hayah" which translates "and there will be".

Second, there is "kohen" which translates "a priest".

Third, there "al-kis'o" which translates "beside his throne".

So what we have as seen above is, "and there will be a priest beside his 
throne."

A descendant of Tzadok (Zadok) will sit beside the Sprout's throne.

Yohanan


----Original Message Follows----
From: Schmuel <schmuel AT escape.com>
Reply-To: Schmuel <schmuel AT escape.com>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
CC: Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>
Subject: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 6:13 - and he shall be a priest upon his  
throne
Date: Wed, 13 Nov 2002 09:25:34 -0500

Shalom b-hebrew,

Zechariah 6:13
Even he shall build the temple of the LORD; and he shall bear the glory,
   and shall sit and rule upon his throne; **and he shall be a priest upon 
his throne**:
   and the counsel of peace shall be between them both.

Schmuel
> >The lack of a preposition seems to match the KJB a little
> >closer than the Jewish versions, are they more literal?

> Youngs 6:13               And hath been a priest on His throne ..
> Emphaiszed               And shall become a priest upon his throne,
> Jay Green Interlinear   And shall be a priest upon his throne

Trevor
> What do you mean by the lack of a preposition? In translation or in the 
> text?
> I'm not sure I can identify what you have in mind.

Hi Trevor, always appreciate your assistance..

I was referring to the Hebrew text
   .... does it have a clear, or only an implied proposition..

Some translations have                  "he",
others have                                   "there shall be"

while, the three most literal I know have neither.
leaving the word "he" or "there" or whatever to simply to be implied..

Therefore I was wondering what is there in a strict literalist Hebrew text 
first..

Based on Emphasized, Green, and Young's, my conjecture was that the
  phrases "he" or "there" are differing contextual emendations .

Schmuel b4
> >. but also grammatically more awkward, in the sense of harmonizing with
> >"and the counsel of peace shall be between them both.  ?

Trevor
> Perhaps the sense if it were read as one person would be accord between the
> priestly and royal offices (which would obviously result from one person 
> holding both)?
>  But I agree that this part seems more straightforward if two persons are 
> in view.

Schmuel

Yes, we seem to be covering two alternate views of the text, there are both 
Jewish
(e.g. Levey on the Targum) and Christian commentators who talk of the 
priestly
and royal offices...

Yet the idea of making the Hebrew into two persons is clearly contextually 
understandable..

So let's not worry much about the interpretation, consider that a wash, and 
work
directly with the Hebrew in a more literal grammatical sense....

My question is does the Hebrew behind
  *and he shall be a priest upon his throne**

equally allow for both possibilities,   "he shall be"  or "there shall be"

Or would/could the Hebrew more exactly be a little different if the idea
was "there shall be (another/different)" high priest....

In other words,

Ideally, if the Hebrew is switching subject, could it show that 
grammatically.. ?
Is either reading more called for from the grammar  ?

================
ALSO.. what about the Hebrew difference between

      "upon/on/seated"   vs.
      "before"

These are very different in English.. how does the Hebrew wash out ?

Hope I was clearer this time, and thanks for the help..

Shalom,
Schmuel


schmuel AT escape.com

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