Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Trevor & Julie Peterson" <06peterson AT cua.edu>]

Schmuel wrote:

> I was referring to the Hebrew text
>     .... does it have a clear, or only an implied proposition..
>
> Some translations have                  "he",
> others have                                   "there shall be"
>
> while, the three most literal I know have neither.
> leaving the word "he" or "there" or whatever to simply to be implied..

Maybe you're not using the right term. "He" is a pronoun. Do you mean the
subject of the action? Hebrew verbs have implied subjects. A subject can be
stated explicitly, but for either of these options, I wouldn't expect an
explicit subject. The implied subject in this case is masculine singular,
which works for an unspecified subject or for the person who's already in
view.
>
[snipped]
>
> My question is does the Hebrew behind
>    *and he shall be a priest upon his throne**
>
> equally allow for both possibilities,   "he shall be"  or "there shall be"

I would say so.

[snipped]
>
>        "upon/on/seated"   vs.
>        "before"
>
> These are very different in English.. how does the Hebrew wash out ?

Of 57 instances in the Hebrew Bible where this preposition collocates with
this word for "throne," I couldn't find one that meant anything but actually
being on the throne itself. So I'm not sure where the idea of "before" the
throne comes in.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics