Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Polycarp66 AT aol.com]

In a message dated 4/11/2002 11:30:27 AM Eastern Daylight Time, 
wross AT farmerstel.com writes:

In the KJV, it sounds as if "such as are of a clean heart" are being equated
with "Israel." Ie, it seems like clause B identifies clause A.

How does the Hebrew read? Is it more like:

"Yet God is good to Israelites that are of a clean heart."

or

"Yet God is good to Israel and all that are of a clean heart."
_________________

)aK +oWB L:Yi&:Rf)"L ):eLoHiYM
L:BfR"Y L"BfB

As literalistic as I can make it the passage goes

Surely good to Israel [is] God
to pure ones of heart.

You should keep in mind that not every parallel stich simply reiterates the 
previous stich.  There are several relations which can exist between them.  
They may be

1. Synonymous
2. Antithetic
3. Constructive (additive)
4. Introverted (1//4, 2//3)

GfSomsel