Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Paul Zellmer" <smdirect AT bellsouth.net>]

NOTE: permission given for response on-list

No, Ian, they are of a completely different character.  The other instances
of "time words" in your list, almost always YWM or its plural form, are
words describing *duration* of time.  R)$YT in the cases you give refers to
a *particular point or event*, the beginning of a series.  I would say that
there needs be a bit more groundwork laid that a "point" word is handled the
same as a "duration" word before we can lump them together as "time" words
and then go on to make conclusions, e.g., because YWM is handled in such a
way, R)$YT can be interpreted the same way.

Paul Zellmer

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Ian Hutchesson [mailto:mc2499 AT mclink.it]
> Sent: Thursday, March 21, 2002 11:33 AM
> To: smdirect AT bellsouth.net
> Subject: Re: bereshit (translations) Paul
>
>
> >A couple days ago I asked you why you are even so sure that
> R)$YT is even a
> >"time" word.  I repeat that the word as used throughout the
> Tanach seems to
> >be describing *what* it is that comes at the start of a series, not the
> >*time* the series starts.  I don't see your basis for taking it
> the same way
> >as, say, YWM, which clearly specifies a unit of time.
> >
> >If we remove the "time word" or "time phrase" element, that sort
> of shoots
> >your whole debate in the foot, what?
>
> How do you treat br'$yt in the following?
>
> Jer 26:1,
> Jer 27:1,
> Jer 28:1 (with the wyhy introducing it as with many bywm),
> Jer 49:34
>
> If these are not time references what are they?
>
> Yeah, that's right, they are time references.
>
>
> Ian
>
>
>