Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

How can both the LXX and the MT be inerrent
when they differ?
Liz

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Dave Washburn [mailto:dwashbur AT nyx.net]
> Sent: Mon, December 31, 2001 11:33 AM
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: Re: Language code switching in Daniel
> 
> 
> [snip]
> > On another issue, how can one possibly erect a theory of 
> inerrancy for the
> > LXX based upon a quotation of Jesus in the NT?  All the direct 
> quotations of
> > his words are in Aramaic, non?  
> [snip]
> Non.  First of all, the quotation mentioned was in Hebrews, not in 
> the gospels.  Second, it's clear that Jesus must have spoken Greek as 
> well as Aramaic since we have numerous examples where he spoke to non-
> Jews such as a Roman centurion, a Syrophonecian woman, and the Roman 
> procurator.  Where it's clear he spoke Aramaic, the Aramaic words are 
> transliterated into Greek characters, and they're only snippets.  
> Given the commonness of a mixed audience, it seems more likely that 
> he spoke Greek most of the time.  But even assuming otherwise, the 
> Hebrews quotation has nothing to do with it.
> Dave Washburn
> http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
> This time, like all times, is a very good one if we but know what to 
> do with it.
>                   -Emerson
> 
> 
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