Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Dave Washburn" <dwashbur AT nyx.net>]

[snip]
> On another issue, how can one possibly erect a theory of inerrancy for the
> LXX based upon a quotation of Jesus in the NT?  All the direct quotations of
> his words are in Aramaic, non?  
[snip]
Non.  First of all, the quotation mentioned was in Hebrews, not in 
the gospels.  Second, it's clear that Jesus must have spoken Greek as 
well as Aramaic since we have numerous examples where he spoke to non-
Jews such as a Roman centurion, a Syrophonecian woman, and the Roman 
procurator.  Where it's clear he spoke Aramaic, the Aramaic words are 
transliterated into Greek characters, and they're only snippets.  
Given the commonness of a mixed audience, it seems more likely that 
he spoke Greek most of the time.  But even assuming otherwise, the 
Hebrews quotation has nothing to do with it.
Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
This time, like all times, is a very good one if we but know what to 
do with it.
                  -Emerson