Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Theodore H. Mann" <theomann AT earthlink.net>]

Many thanks for the response.
Which is clear and straightforward, "us" or "him?" Also, do you have any
thoughts as to why translations differ on this?  For example: KJV, NASB,
ESV have "us": NRSV, TEV, NIV have "him," although NRSV and TEV include a
footnote allowing "us" as a possibility.  I gather from the NRSV footnote
that it has something to do with what version of the OT is used as the
exemplar(?)

Thanks.

Ted

> US
> 
> It's so clear and straighforward, none of the commentaries I have here to
> look at, even discuss it.
> 
> Shoshanna
> 
> 
> > Greetings good friends:
> >
> > It has been pointed out to me that the last part of Hosea 12:4 is
> sometimes
> > translated into English as "And there He spoke with us," and sometimes as
> > "And there He spoke with him."  Why the difference, and which is correct?
> > Many thanks.