Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Peter Kirk" <Peter_Kirk AT sil.org>]

Trevor and Randall have made good points. But there is a special distinction
with Semitic languages, which perhaps also applied to the distantly related
Egyptian. The structure of these languages (based on triliteral roots) makes
it relatively easy to understand a consonant only text. In many other
languages the vowels also play a very important distinctive role (and in
some, tone also does). For these languages, it is necessary to write the
vowels, or to use pointing with scripts that are used without pointing for
Semitic languages.

Peter Kirk

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Matthew R. Miller [mailto:biblicalscribe AT hotmail.com]
> Sent: 02 September 2001 13:17
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: Semetic Vowels Revisited
>
>
> Shalom l'kol:
>
> I had asked once before for anyone's ideas or theories about the lack of
> vowels in anciet Semetic language, but as of yet received no response to
> that specific topic. My questions are these: were all human written
> languages devoid of vowles in early times, or only Semetic ones? If so,
> when did vowels begin to be written in the texts?  If not, then why only
> Semetic? Why did the ancients feel free to leave out these vowels, when
> moderns (except Semetic peoples of course) feel the need to include them?
> Any theories, thoughts, etc. would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Matthew
>
>