Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Matthew R. Miller" <biblicalscribe AT hotmail.com>]

Shalom l'kol:

I had asked once before for anyone's ideas or theories about the lack of
vowels in anciet Semetic language, but as of yet received no response to
that specific topic. My questions are these: were all human written
languages devoid of vowles in early times, or only Semetic ones? If so,
when did vowels begin to be written in the texts?  If not, then why only
Semetic? Why did the ancients feel free to leave out these vowels, when
moderns (except Semetic peoples of course) feel the need to include them?
Any theories, thoughts, etc. would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Matthew