Biblical Hebrew Forum

[c stirling bartholomew <cc.constantine AT worldnet.att.net>]

on 5/10/01 12:37 PM, Numberup AT worldnet.att.net wrote:

> "Subordination" has several meanings, and how does this affect a precise
> translation?  I think preferable is Koehler and Baumgartner's explanation 
> (_A
> Bilingual Dictionary of the Hebrew and Aramaic Old Testament_, Brill, 1998):
> "_)asher_ marks the connexion of two independent clauses of which the
> second explains more distinctly a part of the first."
> 
> Solomon Landers

Solomon,

When we say that 'asher links "two independent clauses of which the
second explains more distinctly a part of the first," do we not need to take
a close look at what we mean by "two independent clauses." If we mean by
this that each clause contains all the necessarily clausal constituents to
stand alone then I have no problem with the statement. But the function of a
subordination marker is to make these two clauses interdependent is it not?
The clause marked with 'asher limits the semantic scope of some constituent
in the higher level clause, so that the two clauses combine to form a higher
level constituent (a compound clause). I am speaking here in terms of
hypotaxis, and assuming that 'asher is functionally similar to hOS in Greek.
This may not in fact be the case which is the reason that I am raising the
question. 

So how does 'asher differ in function from hOS in Greek?

Clay

--  
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062