Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Christian M. M. Brady" <cbrady AT tulane.edu>]

On 1/30/01 7:34 PM, "Moshe Shulman" <mshulman AT ix.netcom.com> wrote:

> At 07:09 PM 1/30/01 -0600, Christian M. M. Brady wrote:
>> On 1/30/01 6:37 PM, "Moshe Shulman" <mshulman AT ix.netcom.com> wrote:
>>> At 08:58 PM 1/30/01 +0200, Jonathan D. Safren wrote:
>>>> ----- Original Message -----
>>>> From: "Moshe Shulman" <mshulman AT ix.netcom.com>
>>>>> I wouldn't mind discussing this if we could first agree as to what we
> 
>> mean
>>>>> bu 'messiah' and which one we are talkign about.
>>>> I mean the classical Jewish belief in the Davidic Messiah, which had
>> become
>>> I understand that, but the term 'messiah' is post Biblical, so that when 
>>> we
>>> want to discuss this 'Davidic King' we need to look at it that way. He is
>>> not the only 'messiah' of Jewish tradition. It's liek calling Hillel
>> 'Rabbi'.
>> I don't understand how you can say that the term "messiah" is "post
>> Biblical." The term occurs extensively throughout the Hebrew Bible from 1
>> Sam onward in reference to a King (and specifically to a descendant of
>> David).
>> Now, if you meant "messiah" with all of its eschatological baggage, then
>> that is another matter and Jonathan clarified that this was not what he
>> meant.
> 
> He mentions the 'Davidic messiah'. But I am refering to the eschatological
> association of 'messiah' and some person(s) in the end-times.

Yes, but while Jonathan specified the "Davidic messiah" you then said "the
term 'messiah' is post Biblical." That is untrue. The eschatological
understanding may be/is post Biblical, but not the TERM.

Cb
cbrady @ tulane.edu