Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Jonathan D. safren" <yonsaf AT beitberl.ac.il>]

 Christian M. M. Brady wrote:

> On 1/29/01 9:00 AM, "Jonathan D. Safren" <yon_saf AT bezeqint.net> wrote:
>
> > There was no "pluralis majestatis" at that time (God in Gen. 1:28 is
talking
> > to the Divine retinue).
>
> What evidence do you have that there was no 'pluralis majestatis' in
ancient
> Israel?
>

What evidence do you have that there was?
Neither Israelite nor other kings in the Bible (Pharaoh in Ex. 1:8-9 is
speaking to his people and asking their cooperation) norAncient Near Eastern
Kings in their annals and inscriptions ever use the "pluralis majestatis".
They speak in first person singular.
The Israelite God, the Divine King, has a retinue, including messengers
(which is what the Hebrew mal'akh and the Greek aggelos mean), even a
spouse, according to the Kuntillet Ajrud Inscription, and so, when He uses
"we", He is referring to these.
See, for example:
Gen. 3: 22 "see, Man has become like one of us..."
God's retinue may have orignially included other gods; see
Ps. 29:1 "A Psalm for the David(ic king): Ascribe to YHWH, oh sons of the
gods, ascribe to YHWH glory and strength".
Ps. 95:3 "For YHWH is a great god, and a great king over all the gods".
Other verses could be adduced as well.
Sincerely,
Jonathan D. Safren
Chairman
Dept. of Biblical Studies
Beit Berl College
44905 Israel