Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Christine Bass" <christinebass AT home.com>]

Okay, Moshe, curious minds want to know----what do you understand "betulim"
mean? And how does your understanding of the word differ from George's---as
you appear to imply it would---
and why the difference in interpretation between the two of you?

Thank you for listing the reference sites. Christian posted yesterday that
the job of good scholarship and exegesis is to be upfront with our point of
view. This information helps me to understand where you are coming from.

================

----- Original Message -----
From: "Christian M. M. Brady" <cbrady AT tulane.edu>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Saturday, January 27, 2001 2:16 PM
Subject: Re: Isaiah's servant

> > Seriously, however, it is apparent to me that a person's
> > perspective gives a certain "spin"  to the interpretation of a text,
> > no matter how neutral the individual attempts to be. Everyone, including
>>me, comes to the text with a  personal perspective.


> No doubt, but IMO the job of good, modern scholarship and exegesis is to

> 1) admit our prejudices up front and 2) try and keep their influence to a
> minimum (unless one is avowedly interpreting the text within a particular
> faith/tradition).

Regards,

Christine Bass

http://www.jewsforjesus.org/believe/index.htm

=======================================
From: "Moshe Shulman"

Subject: RE: BETHULAH - virgin


> At 05:50 PM 1/28/01 -0500, Liz Fried wrote:

> >Where is the evidence that women previously married
> >are called virgins?
> >Liz
>
> I wonder how he understands the word 'betulim'?

> CHASSIDUS.NET - Yoshav Rosh       http://www.chassidus.net

> Outreach Judaism                  http://www.outreachjudaism.org/

>