Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Peter Kirk" <Peter_Kirk AT sil.org>]

Dear Randall,

Thank you. I think Isaiah 6:1 will do nicely as the single example required
to refute Rolf's assertion.

I'm not so sure of the validity of the Moabite Stone for such an argument,
as we need to prove not assume that it is close enough to regular b-hebrew.
Any examples with wayehi are less clear cut as the wayehi clause can be
taken, at least at some level, as an independent sentence giving a setting
and joined to the following sentence by a conjunction.

Peter Kirk

----- Original Message -----
From: "yochanan bitan" <ButhFam AT compuserve.com>
To: "Peter Kirk" <Peter_Kirk AT sil.org>
Cc: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Wednesday, September 06, 2000 6:36 AM
Subject: Re: examples: vayyiqtol and adverbs


shalom Peter,
You asked about examples of the following
> To put it another way, this interpretation demands
>that in verse 3 there is a WAYYIQTOL form in a non-sentence-initial
>position.

I've presented on list the very nice Isaiah 6.1 and Moabite line 4-5? and
31(?) as examples of pure adverbial followed by vav hahippux. there are
others, and you might add any examples of "vayehi (befo`olo) vayya`as..."
contrasting with "vayehi (befo`olo) veha-po`el `asa ..., et al.

Of course, I wouldn't exactly say 'the conjunctive meaning is not
possible', the question is very poorly phrased for Hebrew. It's looking at
the language backwards/inside-out or outside-in, to turn a phrase.

bivraxot
Randall Buth