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  • From: "Tony Costa" <tmcos AT hotmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Leviticus 12:1-5
  • Date: Tue, 09 May 2000 11:34:25 PDT


Dear Friends,

Do any of you know why it is according to Lev 12:1-5 a woman would be considered "unclean" for double the amount of time if she gave birth to a daughter as opposed to a son? If she bears a son, the mother is unclean for a week, to be continued for another 33 days, if a daughter she is "unclean" for two weeks, to be continued for another 66 days. Any thoughts on why this is the case? Many thanks.

Tony Costa, B.A.
University of Toronto
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