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  • From: Naama Zahavi-Ely <nxzaha AT wm.edu>
  • Cc: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Leviticus 12:1-5
  • Date: Tue, 09 May 2000 15:40:23 -0400


May I suggest that any discussion of 'uncleanliness' after birth has to cover
what (in
practical terms) did it mean to be 'unclean'? For example, is it a time of
being
excused from normal household duties (that is, a time of rest for the mother)?

Best,

Naama



Tony Costa wrote:

> Dear Friends,
>
> Do any of you know why it is according to Lev 12:1-5 a woman would be
> considered "unclean" for double the amount of time if she gave birth to a
> daughter as opposed to a son? If she bears a son, the mother is unclean for
> a week, to be continued for another 33 days, if a daughter she is "unclean"
> for two weeks, to be continued for another 66 days. Any thoughts on why this
> is the case? Many thanks.
>
> Tony Costa, B.A.
> University of Toronto
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