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b-hebrew - Re: Indirect Discourse Infinitive

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  • From: "Dale M. Wheeler" <dalemw AT teleport.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Indirect Discourse Infinitive
  • Date: Fri, 11 Feb 2000 10:37:40 -0800


At 01:47 PM 2/10/00 -0600, you wrote:




Ray Clendenen@BSSBNOTES
02/10/2000 01:47 PM

<<I was looking at 1 Sam 19:1 this morning and came across DBR followed by
an
Infinitive Construct with L. My first inclination was to read the
infinitive clause as an indirect discourse clause (where the original
statement was an imperative or cohortative), but I couldn't remember any
grammars ever listing such a function for the infinitive construct (I later
checked W-O'C, GKC, DHS and found nothing).>>

Dale, I suggest you look at Clines' Dictionary of Classical Hebrew, 2:395.
It lists 1 S 19:1 under DBR followed by inf. of purpose/consequence of
speech along with Ex 6:27; 32:14; Num 9:4; Dt 19:8; Jg 19:3; 1 S 25:39; 2 K
14:27; Is 32:6; Jr 18:7,9,20; 51:62; Ezk 3:18; 6:10; ; 3:8; Jon 3:10; 1QH
4:16

Ray Clendenen
Broadman & Holman

Ray:

Thanks for the reference.

But after looking at the examples, I still have the same question. What does it mean that Saul spoke in order to kill David ?? Or is this what the NRSV means by "about killing David"? But that's not purpose or consequence, that's indirect/reported speech, isn't it? Now if we want to understand DBR as "commanded, told", like the NIV, then the infinitive is the Acc Obj/Content of the command (which is still technically reported speech, but why quibble)...but I still don't see how that's purpose or consequence.

But this whole thing has spawned a further question in my mind, namely, there doesn't seem to be a grammatical category anywhere in Hebrew grammars (I only did a quick check) for indirect speech, though Waltke says such things occur (p. 646, fn. 39). But indirect speech is part of universal grammar, ie., every human being reports the speech, thoughts, feelings, etc., of others in normal discourse at some point. Are we to believe that there is no such way to do that normally in Hebrew, nor that it is recognizable when we do it (like direct speech after L)MR...)? I think in many of these cases I've just naturally read the Hebrew as expressing indirect discourse of some kind...its just that now I'm in the process of revising some Hebrew syntax notes, and when you start to actually cull thru categories and examples, things jump out at you based on your reading experience...and this one jumps out at me. I need to cogitate on this problem some more...if you know of any discussion on this topic, please let me know.





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Dale M. Wheeler, Ph.D.
Research Professor in Biblical Languages Multnomah Bible College
8435 NE Glisan Street Portland, OR 97220
Voice: 503-251-6416 FAX:503-251-6478 E-Mail: dalemw AT teleport.com
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