Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Walter Mattfeld" <mattfeld AT mail.pjsnet.com>]

A question for linguists who frequent this list. I have earlier argued for
the Pentateuch's Exodus being based on a "historical kernel," the Hyksos
Expulsion of the 16th century BCE.

I note that the last reigning Hyksos king is called Khamudy. What is the
chance that Moses is a transformation of Khamudy ? Could Kha- be a lost
gutteral like Gai (LXX) and Ai (MT) or Ghumri (Assyrian, rendered with a
curved diacritical under the H) and Omri (MT) ? Could Egyptian d be
transliterated into a Semitic z whence an s arose later, thus,
(Kha-) muzy, -musy, Hebrew Moshe (Greek Moses) ? Let's hear it from the
linguists, plausible or implausible, and why ?

All the best,

Walter

Walter Reinhold Warttig Mattfeld
Walldorf by Heidelberg
Baden-Wurttemburg
Germany