Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George Athas" <gathas AT mail.usyd.edu.au>]

> I note that the last reigning Hyksos king is called Khamudy. What is the
> chance that Moses is a transformation of Khamudy ? Could Kha- be a lost
> gutteral like Gai (LXX) and Ai (MT) or Ghumri (Assyrian, rendered with a
> curved diacritical under the H) and Omri (MT) ? Could Egyptian d be
> transliterated into a Semitic z whence an s arose later, thus,
> (Kha-) muzy, -musy, Hebrew Moshe (Greek Moses) ? Let's hear it from the
> linguists, plausible or implausible, and why ?

If the initial consonant had been a gayin, it would still be preserved as an 
ayin in
Hebrew, as in the name for Gomorrah (Heb: `amorrah) or Gaza (Heb: `azzah). 
Then you have
the large linguistic stretch of identifying zayin/dh/d with a shin in Hebrew. 
It never
happens. It just doesn't work.

Best regards,
George Athas
 Dept of Semitic Studies,
 University of Sydney
:::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::
Tel Dan Inscription Website
http://members.xoom.com/gathas/teldan.htm
:::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::
< gathas@ mail.usyd.edu.au >