Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bill Ross" <wross AT farmerstel.com>]

How can David say that he has sinned against God "alone"? It this a
translation issue? An idiom?

Psalm 51:

4
RSV
Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done that which is evil in thy
sight, so that thou art justified in thy sentence and blameless in thy
judgment.
KJV
Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done this evil in thy sight:
that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, and be clear when thou
judgest.
DBY
Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done what is evil in thy sight;
that thou mayest be justified when thou speakest, be clear when thou
judgest.
YLT
Against Thee, Thee only, I have sinned, And done the evil thing in Thine
eyes, So that Thou art righteous in Thy words, Thou art pure in Thy judging.


Bill Ross
http://members.xoom.com/woundedego