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  • From: "Bill Ross" <wross AT farmerstel.com>
  • To: "'Biblical Hebrew'" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Thee only???
  • Date: Fri, 4 Feb 2000 16:14:20 -0600


How can David say that he has sinned against God "alone"? It this a
translation issue? An idiom?

Psalm 51:

4
RSV
Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done that which is evil in thy
sight, so that thou art justified in thy sentence and blameless in thy
judgment.
KJV
Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done this evil in thy sight:
that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, and be clear when thou
judgest.
DBY
Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done what is evil in thy sight;
that thou mayest be justified when thou speakest, be clear when thou
judgest.
YLT
Against Thee, Thee only, I have sinned, And done the evil thing in Thine
eyes, So that Thou art righteous in Thy words, Thou art pure in Thy judging.


Bill Ross
http://members.xoom.com/woundedego




  • Thee only???, Bill Ross, 02/04/2000

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