Biblical Hebrew Forum

[ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk (Ben Crick)]

On Fri  4 Feb 2000 (16:14:20), wross AT farmerstel.com wrote:
> How can David say that he has sinned against God "alone"? It this a
> translation issue? An idiom?
> 
> Psalm 51:4
> RSV
> Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done that which is evil in
> thy sight, so that thou art justified in thy sentence and blameless in thy
> judgment.

 Dear Bill,

 L:Ka L:BaDD:Ka Xa+a'TiY is the phrase. BaD is an adjective meaning separated,
 alone; with prefix L: it becomes an adverb L:BaD, only; uniquely.

 Sin against man is only defined with reference to the commandments of
 YHWH, the pure, righteous, holy God. A King like David can do what he will
 with his subjects, because he is king and they are subjects. The King is the
 law; "l'e/tat c'est moi" (Louis XIV of France). Criminal law is "Regina v.
 Smith" or "United States v. Smith".

 David realises that neither Bathsheba nor Uriah can have any redress
 against their king under civil law; but under Divine Law they do have a
 powerful Advocate who will justify them. David realises that he has a
 case against him in the Court of Heaven; so he quickly pleads Guilty to
 YHWH, the Righteous Judge (Genesis 18:25).

 Some commentators use this verse to justify a late pseudepigraphical
 authorship for this penitential Psalm of David L:DaWiD; but that issue is
 beyond the scope of this reply.

 Shalom,
 Ben
-- 
 Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
 <ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk>
 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)
 http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm