Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Charles David Isbell" <cisbell AT home.com>]

Dale,
The terms used by medieval grammarians to describe the infinitives are
instructive:  [1] the MaQoR MuHLaT,
or "definite {i.e., decided or unchanging} infinitive became the "infinitive
absolute" when translated into non-Semitic languages.  This is, of course, a
good description of the form, for it does not inflect.  [2]  the MaQoR
NiSMaKh (or MaQoR NaTuy) referred to a form of the infinitive that does in
fact inflect (the medievalists said "mishtaneh") or "depend" upon other
factors in its variety of functions reflected by multiple forms in the
language.  English "infinitive construct"  is a rather slavish rendition of
NiSMaKh, probably influenced by the similarity it bears to the "construct"
state of the noun generally (SMiKhut in Hebrew grammar).
Hope this helps.
Charles David Isbell
----- Original Message -----
From: "Dale M. Wheeler" <dalemw AT teleport.com>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Wednesday, February 02, 2000 11:27 AM
Subject: Inf Abs vs Cstr


> Fellow bhebrew'ers:
>
> I have been searching in vain for the origin of the names Infinitive
> "Absolute" and "Construct".  Anyone know where they came from ??
>
> Am I correct in assuming that "Absolute" was applied to this infinitive
> form because of its tendency to stand alone, like an noun in the absolute
> state, in the place of another verb form, and "Construct" was applied to
> this infinitive form because of its tendency to be subordinated, like a
> noun in construct, to another form, whether that's a verb or a
preposition?
>
> Thanks for any help...
>
>
> ***********************************************************************
> Dale M. Wheeler, Ph.D.
> Research Professor in Biblical Languages        Multnomah Bible College
> 8435 NE Glisan Street                               Portland, OR  97220
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