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  • From: "Mark Markham" <markhamm AT topsurf.com>
  • To: <peter_kirk AT sil.org>, "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Re[2]: 40 days/nights
  • Date: Mon, 27 Sep 1999 00:10:16 +0200


Ok. Well what I want to know is what did the author intend literal or fig
in the use of forty-days and forty nights in the Noah saga, also the 40 day
cake in ! Kings 19 as well as the forty day fast of Christ ( from a Hebrew
perspective if possible).

It seems all these are presented as accounts intended to be literal. Does
the language allow this (keep away historical arguments-- I am interested in
the authors intentions). Thanks.

Mark Markham
Heidelberg, Germany
----- Original Message -----
From: <peter_kirk AT sil.org>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Saturday, September 25, 1999 10:18 PM
Subject: Re[2]: 40 days/nights


> Not any commentary, though maybe any commentary which you would accept
> as scholarly. There is good evidence that the final redactors of the
> Pentateuch intended the 40 years of wilderness wanderings to be taken
> literally e.g. in calculating Moses' age at death as 120 (Deu 34:7)
> compared with his age just before the Exodus which is given as 80 (and
> Aaron's as 83, Exodus 7:7). Such a time period for the wilderness
> wanderings also fits nicely with the idea of all of the older
> generation (those 20 years or older at the Exodus) dying before the
> conquest, which is a fundamental point in the whole wilderness
> tradition. My point is not so much that this was an actual historical
> period, but rather that the redactors believed it to be. (Rohl of
> course takes this as a historical 40 years, but then "he would,
> wouldn't he").
>
> Peter Kirk
>
>
> ______________________________ Reply Separator
_________________________________
> Subject: Re: 40 days/nights
> Author: <jwest AT highland.net> at Internet
> Date: 24/09/1999 19:35
>
>
> At 12:15 AM 9/25/99 +0200, you wrote:
> >What is the understanding of the number 40 as an idiom meaning a long
time
> >in Biblical Hebrew. Is this understanding legit?
>
> yes- its merely a formulaic way of saying "a long time". See any
commentary
> on, for instance, the 40 years in the wilderness.
>
> >
> >Should 40 days/nights be taken as lit. or as an idiom or both?
>
> as a way of saying "a long time".
>
> jim
>
> +++++++++++++++++++++++++
> Jim West, ThD
> email- jwest AT highland.net
> web page- http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
>
>
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