Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryan Rocine" <brocine AT earthlink.net>]

Brian Tucker wrote:

> Greetings
>
> What is wrong with the following statement?
>
> A vav conversive indicates:
>
> 1. The word is a verb.
>
> 2. The subject of the verb, a pronoun, is indicated by the
consonant
> following the vav. When such a **pronoun subject**
precedes the root, this
> pronoun is called a prefix, and we say that the verb has
prefix form.
>
> 3. The verb should be translated in the past tense.
>

As much as I like Kittel, Hoffer, and Wright's work, here's
where we parted company (lesson 1).  I do not subscribe to
the vav-conversive and/or the vav-reversive (the vav on the
weqatal according to Kittel, Hoffer and Wright) theory.
Although the approach to the wayyiqtol in lesson 1 is very
student-friendly, it is an over-simplification and an
over-generalization.  The student will have to wrestle when
he someday finds that the vav is not converting anything or
that the wayyiqtol is not always translated in the simple
past tense in English.

Shalom,
Bryan


B. M. Rocine
Associate Pastor
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13206

(office) 315.437.6744
(home) 315.479.8267