Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brian Tucker <music AT riverviewcog.org>]

Greetings

Thanks for the answers, I tried to expand on what I meant below...

> > I am primarily concerned about the "pronoun subject" verses "pronominal
> > element" understanding. Is this distinction important enough to make an
> > issue over?
> 
> I think it depends on whether one is translating or doing exegesis.
> If translating into a language like English that requires either a
> nominal or pronominal subject, probably not.  Exegetically, there's
> a difference between a clause that includes an explicit pronoun and
> one that simply has the subject's person gender and number built
> into the verb form.

Could you expand on this answer a little. One person I am working with
is making an issue over the difference between pronoun subject and
pronominal element. He feels that pronominal element is the correct
label here, that it is not actually the pronoun subject.

> 
> 
> > 2. If there was a miscontruing of the divine name, why was there not a
> > misconstruing of elohim?
> 
What I was getting at is when the divine name was next to 'donay didn't
the Masoretes use other vowel points to avoid confusion? If they did,
why wasn't the divine name with different vowel points misconstrued? Is
it true that when 'donay is next to the divine than that the divine name
is understood as elohim?

> > 4. What is the best way to describe the difference between a root and a
> > stem?
> 
> Depends on what you mean by "stem."  If you mean binyan,
> there's an obvious difference.  If you're using it in another way, I
> don't know.

Paul Zellmer's post answered this question. As it pertains to binyan,
how would you characterize the obvious difference?


Thanks
Brian Tucker
music AT riverviewcog.org
Riverview, MI