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b-hebrew - Re: The form of weqatal (really wayyiqtol)

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  • From: John Ronning <ronning AT nis.za>
  • To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: The form of weqatal (really wayyiqtol)
  • Date: Mon, 16 Aug 1999 04:07:39 +0200


Dave wrote:

> <snip>
> >
> > Dave, you're asking us to believe that wayyiqtol is a verb form that (1)
> > NEVER takes the conjunction, though all other verb forms do; (2) NEVER
> > is preceded by things that precede other verbs like KIY, 'ASHER, LO',
> > etc. etc.
>
> I see nothing extraordinary about (2), since it's well known that
> wayyiqtol in fact isn't preceded by any of these particles.

It's not extraordinary if the WA- of wayyiqtol is the familiar conjunction,
but it is
extremely extraordinary, odd, and unbelievable if it's not. How do you
explain that
wayyiqtol is a finite verb form that is never in the whole Hebrew Bible
negated?

Why doesn't Gen 1:5 read
wayyiqra' Elohim la'or yom, welaxoshek wayyiqra laylah

Similar question for thousands of other examples!

You're serious about this?

John






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