Biblical Hebrew Forum

[John Ronning <ronning AT nis.za>]

Dave wrote:

> <snip>
> >
> > Dave, you're asking us to believe that wayyiqtol is a verb form that (1)
> > NEVER takes the conjunction, though all other verb forms do; (2) NEVER
> > is preceded by things that precede other verbs like KIY, 'ASHER, LO',
> > etc. etc.
>
> I see nothing extraordinary about (2), since it's well known that
> wayyiqtol in fact isn't preceded by any of these particles.

It's not extraordinary if the WA- of wayyiqtol is the familiar conjunction, 
but it is
extremely extraordinary, odd, and unbelievable if it's not.  How do you 
explain that
wayyiqtol is a finite verb form that is never in the whole Hebrew Bible 
negated?

Why doesn't Gen 1:5 read
wayyiqra' Elohim la'or yom, welaxoshek wayyiqra laylah

Similar question for thousands of other examples!

You're serious about this?

John