Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Paul Zellmer" <zellmer AT digitelone.com>]

Rolf Furuli wrote:

> In connection with prophetic utterances, the grammars use the term
> "prophetic perfect", indicating that the prophecy is so certain that
it is
> as if it already has been fulfilled. I reject this idea, but it shows
how
> commentators think- and this thinking is interesting. When God utters
a
> prophecy, expressed by either QATAL or WEQATAL, I am quite sure that
the
> Hebrew mind would put such prophecies in the group which we call
indicative
> (See for instance 1 kings 11:11,31,35,37). Volition and uncertainty
would
> not be connected with such words. If such situations are not accepted
as
> indicative, then, what kind of evidence is needed to show that
something is
> indicative?


Rolf,

As I understand the application of the term, "prophetic perfect," it is
applied to items that would normally be seen as past but which the
context shows to be future.  I.e., wayyiqtols and X-qatals.  Could you
please direct me to a grammar that considers a weqatal as a prophetic
perfect, or one that would so classify the examples that you gave?  I
might have missed it, but all of these appear to be weqatals in imbedded
speech, which would normally be treated as future.

Thanks,

Paul