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b-hebrew - Re: Re[2]: The form of weqatal

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  • From: Edgar Foster <questioning1 AT yahoo.com>
  • To: Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no>, Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Re[2]: The form of weqatal
  • Date: Fri, 23 Jul 1999 13:29:05 -0400 (EDT)


--- Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no> wrote:

>In connection with prophetic utterances, the
grammars use the term "prophetic perfect", indicating that the prophecy
is so certain that it is as if it already has been fulfilled. I reject
this idea, but it shows how commentators think- and this thinking is
interesting. When God utters a prophecy, expressed by either QATAL or
WEQATAL, I am quite sure that the
Hebrew mind would put such prophecies in the group
which we call indicative (See for instance 1 kings 11:11,31,35,37).
Volition and uncertainty would
not be connected with such words. If such situations
are not accepted as indicative, then, what kind of evidence is needed
to show that something is
indicative?<

Dear Rolf,

If you reject the term "prophetic perfect," how do you view the
prophecy in Joel 1:6, 7? In these verses Qal imperfect are used to
describe future events as if they have already happened. Could you
please let me know how you view these prophecies? Could you also
comment on Dan. 7:27?

Thanks,

Edgar

===
Edgar Foster
Classics Major
Lenoir-Rhyne College

http://www.egroups.com/list/greektheology/


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