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  • From: peter_kirk AT sil.org
  • To: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: mitaslem
  • Date: Thu, 15 Jul 1999 00:08:57 -0400


But surely MIT)ASLEM is not a hithpael form, but a form based on a
borrowed quadriliteral root )SLM, from the Arabic )ISLAAM "Islam" or
)ASLAMA "convert to Islam". In fact it is rather anomalous because the
Arabic root is surely SLM corresponding to Hebrew $LM (with Shin). So
the true Hebrew form would be MIT$ALLEM or MI$TALLEM. But this
hithpael form does not appear in the Tanakh either.

If Wondell's friend is trying to get him to "mitaslem", he's going
about it in a strange way!

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator
_________________________________
Subject: mitaslem
Author: alster AT comandcom.com at internet
Date: 13/07/1999 23:49


Shalom again!

I thought I'd add to my clarification on "mitaslem", that although the word
itself cannot be BH, the usage of the hitpa'el form for religious
conversion does have its roots in Tanach. Esther 8:17 reads in Hebrew:
"ve-rabbim me-'ame ha-aretz *mityahadim*", which means (to those who accept
the MT version here) some sort of conversion to Judaism (as I have no
translated Bible at home, I don't know how most of you read this verse).

Therefore we have "mityahed" as converting to Judaism (as opposed to the
later "mitgayer", from "ger", which is the common term in modern Hebrew);
"mitaslem" to Islam; and "mitnatzer" to Christianity. The last two, of
course, are based on the form of the Biblical first.

Baruch Alster


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