Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Ian Hutchesson <mc2499 AT mclink.it>]

Henry Churchyard reponded to my...
>> if I understand correctly Josephus was a speaker of Hebrew who had
>> difficulty in Greek and while the original version of 1 Esdras is
>> understood to have been in Hebrew, it would seem to me that Josephus
>> has used the Greek version of 1 Esdras.  A Persian known as Tattenai
>> in Ezra who is governor of Shetharbozenai (5:3) is Sisinnes governor
>> of Sathrabuzanes in both 1Esdras (6:7) and Josephus (11.1.3).  If I
>> assume for the moment that Josephus had a copy of 1Esdras in Hebrew,
>> would it be possible that the names be transliterated in the same
>> manner independently from thaose in the Greek version of 1Esdras?

thus:

>Actually, I would assume that Josephus was a native speaker of Aramaic

While you may eventually be correct, I can see no reason for making this
assumption. (See some of the logic for Hebrew appended at the end of this
message.)

>who had a reasonably functional knowledge of practical spoken Greek,
>but didn't trust his ability to produce a properly polished written
>"literary" Greek prose style, if working on his own.

Again, you may be right, but this is what Josephus says: 

"those of my own nation freely acknowledge that I far exceed them in the
learning belonging to Jews; I have also taken a great deal of pains to
obtain the learning of the Greeks, and understand the elements of the Greek
language, although I have so long accustomed myself to speak our own
tongue, that I cannot pronounce Greek with sufficient exactness; for our
nation does not encourage those that learn the languages of many nations"

>There are several possibilities that could give rise to a sound being
>transcribed by both "t" and "s" in Greek, the most obvious being the
>Proto-Semitic interdentals (non-sibilant coronal fricatives) which

(By "coronal", do you mean where the teeth meet the alveolar ridge? If so,
are these sounds similar to the -th- in "think" and "this"? -- I'm "sort
of" used to IPA descriptions.)

>merged with fricatives in Cannanite, and utimately with stops in
>Aramaic.  Without knowing which language the word is from, and its
>etymology, it's hard to say for sure....

The person is a Persian governor (pekhah), so I can't see how a Canaanite
derived trajectory would be relevant here. 

Perhaps a few more examples might be helpful for what makes me think that
Josephus was using the Greek version of 1Esdras. He uses three names
related to a letter sent according to 1Esdras to Artaxerxes, but which he
has placed in the more likely historical context of Cambyses: Rathumus,
Beeltethemus and Semellius, all of which are in 1Esdras (though in a
slightly different context). However in Ezra, we find Rehum and Shimshai,
but obviously no equivalent for "Beeltethemus" which Garbini ("Biblical
Aramaic") defines as "the personification of the trade of Rehum". The name
"Sanabassar" manifests itself in Ezra as "Sheshbazzar".


Ian
---------------------
Josephus talks of the Jews using their own language:

BJ 5,9,2  regarding Jews of Jerusalem, Titus "sent Josephus to speak to
          them in their own language".
BJ 6,2,1  "Josephus ... declared to them ... in the Hebrew language."
          (If I remember correctly the Greek has "language of the fathers")

Josephus gives Hebrew/Jewish significances of names:

CA 2,2    " the word Sabbath in the Jewish language denotes rest from all
          sorts of work"
AJ 1,1,1  "the Sabbath, which word denotes rest in the Hebrew tongue."
AJ 1,20,2 "Israel, which in the Hebrew tongue signifies one that struggled
          with the divine angel."

Josephus knows the difference between Hebrew and Aramaic:

AJ 10,1,2 "When Rabshakeh had made this speech in the Hebrew tongue, for he
          was skillful in that language, Eliakim was afraid lest the
          multitude that heard him should be disturbed; so he desired him to
          speak in the Syrian tongue. But the general, understanding what he 
          meant, and perceiving the fear that he was in, he made his answer 
          with a greater and a louder voice, but in the Hebrew tongue;..."

AJ 12,1,1 In the Aristeas material Ptolemy says, "But he said he had been
          informed that there were many books of laws among the Jews worthy
          of inquiring after, and worthy of the king's library, but which,
          being written in characters and in a dialect of their own, will 
          cause no small pains in getting them translated into the Greek
          tongue; that the character in which they are written seems to be
          like to that which is the proper character of the Syrians, and
          that its sound, when pronounced, is like theirs also; and that
          this sound appears to be peculiar to themselves."

AJ 12,1,4 Demetrius tells Ptolemy, "we want the books of the Jewish
          legislation, with some others; for they are written in the Hebrew
          characters, and being in the language of that nation, are to us
          unknown."

If it is clear that the language of their fathers is not Aramaic but
Hebrew, then I can see no reason to think that Josephus meant anything
other than Hebrew, when he talks of speaking in the language of the people
of Jerusalem and the language of the fathers.