Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Paul Zellmer <zellmer AT cag.pworld.net.ph>]

Brendan Roach wrote:

> In class today we were looking at deut 5:26
> QOL ELOHIYM HAYYIYM
> If HAYYIYM is a mp adjective referring to God then why does it not have the
> Definite Article.
> Is the definiteness implied. If so why?

Actually, Brendan, since ):LOHIYM is not a proper noun and is not marked
for
definiteness, and since XAY.IYM is in the attributive position and
therefore should
agree in gender, number, and definiteness, I would be surprised if the
XAY.IYM *did*
have the definite article.  So if you are proposing the verse should be
translated "a
voice of a living God," grammatically you would be okay.  Most people
(of which I'm one) would interpret this as referring to "the" God, but
grammatically you shouldn't bet the farm on that, since it's not stated
explicitly.

HTH,

Paul

--
Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Isabela, Rep. of Philippines

zellmer AT cag.pworld.net.ph