Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no>]

Jonathan Robie wrote:


>>Rolf Furuli writes:
>
>> Have you ever tried to look at the 120 examples of bekor and the 132
>>examples of prwtotokos in the OT and and the 8 examples of prwtotokos in
>>the NT? If you do, you will find that more than 95% of the examples
>>definitely have the *literal* meaning "the one who is born first".
>
>Er, is that a form of argument we want to use for word meaning? If "run"
>means something similar to "jog" in 95% of the uses, does that mean that it
>doesn't have a different meaning when used in a phrase like "run in a
>stocking"?
>

Dear Jonathan,

Your example is fine. I for one do not advocate that words have very
restricted meanings, but in contrast I point out that it is very difficult
to draw theological conclusions on the basis of single words.  A word, in
my view, is void of meaning, but it is a semantic signal of a concept in
the minds of those speaking the same language and having the same
presupposition pool. This concept usually has a quite clear core of meaning
elements but becomes mor fuzzy when the edges are approached. The word
nepe$ represents one concept in Hebrew, but because idiomatic translations
both tranlate the Hebrew language and the Hebrew presupposition pool, the
NIV, for instance, uses more than 30 different English phrases to translate
nepe$.

Other words, such as )elohim, are less fuzzy, and are almost without
exception translated by the same English word. Most translations translate
)elohim as "god" in all cases (even when it is used of Moses in relation to
Aron), perhaps except the few places where it denotes angels. The point
regarding bekor/PRWTOTOKOS is not that it *cannot* have another sense in 5%
of the cases than it has in 95% of the cases. But the point is that it
*must be demonstrated* that this is the case!

In relation to Colossians 1:15 there is a theological motive behind the
search for a meaning other than "the one who is born first" Is it not
strange that in all other instances PRWTOTOKOS is translated by "firstborn"
but in this case different kinds of circumlocutions are sought? Behind this
is not lexical semantics but rather theology!

As a last point we should keep in mind that even though the functions of a
person denoted by a particular word is somwhat stressed in one context,
this does not blot out the core meaning of the concept signalled by the
word. So far nobody has quoted a passage with bekor/PRWTOTOKOS where it is
clearly seen that the core meaning "the one who is born first" is blotted
out. If Bible translators held the opinion that this was the case, why do
the always translate bekor/PRWTOTOKOS  by "firstborn"?


Regards
Rolf


Rolf Furuli
Lecturer in Semitic languages
University of Oslo