Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter_Kirk AT SIL.ORG]

Dear Galia,

Have other European languages been analysed in this way? Is French 
special in this respect? You seem to say that the English simple past 
is different, though I am not yet convinced if we ignore stative 
verbs. But how about the Greek aorist and the Russian past perfective, 
to name two examples I happen to know reasonably well?

Peter


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: Re: About Galia's Theory of Wayyqtol
Author:  ghatav AT aall.ufl.edu at internet
Date:    01/03/1999 08:09

<snip>
     Re other languages. Actually I started looking into the verb forms
with respect to DRT because Hans Kamp in collaboration with C. Rohrer 
(1983) show
that the passe simple in French, as opposed to the Imparait, works this way.

Galia