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b-hebrew - Re[2]: About Galia's Theory of Wayyqtol

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  • From: Galia Hatav <ghatav AT aall.ufl.edu>
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re[2]: About Galia's Theory of Wayyqtol
  • Date: Tue, 2 Mar 1999 11:25:51 +0100


Dear Peter,

You wrote:
>
>Have other European languages been analysed in this way? Is French
>special in this respect? You seem to say that the English simple past
>is different, though I am not yet convinced if we ignore stative
>verbs. But how about the Greek aorist and the Russian past perfective,
>to name two examples I happen to know reasonably well?
>
>Peter

Unfortunately I do not know Greek or Russian. However, consulting
grammars for Slavic languages, Russian in particular, e.g., Forsyth 1970,
it seems that the perfective in Russian works like wayyiqtol in BH. But I
did not do research on Russian myself, so I can't say more than this about
it.
Galia


>
>
>______________________________ Reply Separator
>_________________________________
>Subject: Re: About Galia's Theory of Wayyqtol
>Author: ghatav AT aall.ufl.edu at internet
>Date: 01/03/1999 08:09
>
><snip>
> Re other languages. Actually I started looking into the verb forms
>with respect to DRT because Hans Kamp in collaboration with C. Rohrer
>(1983) show
>that the passe simple in French, as opposed to the Imparait, works this way.
>
>Galia
>
>
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