Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Moon-Ryul Jung" <moon AT computing.soongsil.ac.kr>]

Dear Members:

I find 
       "wehashkem       weshaloach   we    l'o   shma'tem" 
       andtobeginearly  andtosend   and   not   youlistened

in Jeremiah 26:5  difficult to interpret. This is a clause that explains 
the preceding clause. LXX translates it to

 "orthrou            kai apesteila kai ouk eisekousate mou"
  earlyinthemorning and Isent     and  not youlistened tome

Here, "orthrou" goes with the preceding clause. Taking "earlyinthemorning"
to mean "eagerly", the LXX translation means "the prophets which I have 
been sending to you eagerly - I sent but you did not listen to me".

But I do not understand how "shaloach (infinitive)" can be taken to mean
"I sent".

NIV regards "wehashkem (infinitive) weshaloach (infinitive)" as a unit, and 
takes it to mean "namely, sending repeatedly".  The whole clause
turns out to mean "the prophets which I have been sending, even sending 
repeatedly, even though you have not listened". 

But I do not understand how "hashkem (infinitive) weshaloach (infinitive"
                             tobeginearly         andtosend
can mean "sending repeatedly"? Is this an established construct?

Sincerely, 

Moon-Ryul Jung, Ph.D.
Dept. of Computer Science
Soongsil University,
Seoul, korea