Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter_Kirk AT SIL.ORG]

Well, if I look I can find many datable passages referring to 
Melchizedek which are not from the 2nd century BC but are later (for a 
start, look at Hebrews). Is that relevant? Yes, because it shows that 
a reference to Melchizedek in one document is no evidence that other 
references to Melchizedek are contemporary. And as far as I can tell 
that is the only evidence you have for dating Genesis 14 and Psalm 110 
in the 2nd century rather than at any earlier time. (OK, you spoke of 
Hasmonean priest-kings, but then David appears as a priest-king in 2 
Samuel 6, also 8:18, and there is good evidence surely for 
priest-kings in the patriarchal period as traditionally understood). 
Whereas there is good linguistic evidence for these passage being 
earlier.

As for a monotheistic Moses, the presence in Egypt in the 5th century 
and in Judah in the 8th century of syncretistic polytheistic Jews is 
quite irrelevant. Here is a version without ifs: There were 
near-monotheists in Egypt in and around the time of Akhenaten. There 
exists a narrative stating that a (near-??)monotheist from Egypt 
(named Moses) led a group of slaves out of Egypt, at an uncertain time 
which may have been a little before or a little after the time of 
Akhenaten. This narrative is to this extent confirmed in its 
compatibility with the history of Egyptian religion.

If you want further explanation of my approach to history, look back 
at my posting "Re: Unloading the Burden" of 11 Feb.

Peter


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: Re: Historiography and Peter
Author:  mc2499 AT mclink.it at internet
Date:    16/02/1999 17:24

<snip>

There is little that I can see that is circular about the notion that *all* 
our datable references to el elyon are in the second century BCE. If you have 
means to prove this wrong, please do so. Have you also got datable sources 
that use Melchizedek beyond those from the end of the second century?

<snip>

>and now assuming
>disproved monotheism in Moses' time. Why?

The Hebrews at Elephantine who were in communication with Jerusalem saw 
nothing wrong with their polytheism. The building at Kuntillat Ajrud in 
southern Judah from the eighth century BCE was a Yahwistic polytheistic 
sanctuary. Yahweh in his divine council in the midst of the gods is 
definitely not monotheistic.

<snip>

>Anyway,
>something close to monotheism is by no means improbable for Moses, if 
>he was raised in Egypt not long after the time of Akhenaten.

I hope you don't if your way through life completely Peter. But let me give 
you a few ifs as it seems this is something you can appreciate: if the 
Egyptian Moses was an extension of the tribal leader Moses, it is most 
likely that the extension was developed when some of the exiled Hebrews 
fled to Egypt: it was some time after that that Egyptians started 
speculating on the Hebrews and their connection with the Semitic Hyksos and 
their expulsion. This seems like a prime time for Hebrew mercenaries -- 
many Hebrews ended up in the service of the pharaohs (both native and 
foreign) as soldiers. This of course would be the right sort of conditions 
for the development of a phrase like the Yahweh of Armies. But enough 
speculation...


Ian