Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryan Rocine" <596547 AT ican.net>]

hi John,

In your post about Gen 42:6-17 in which you examined the string of
wayyiqtols  for sequentiality, you mentioned that the wayyiqtol in v. 8
vayaker repeats the wayyiqtol of v. 7 vayakirem, thereby proving that the
wayyiqtol is not inherently sequential.  I disagree.

I don't think anyone maintains that all the wayyiqtols represent one linear
sequence of events like one line of dominoes: knock the first one down and
all the rest will come down, too, all in order.  Such a description of the
Hebrew verbal system is a mere charicature of the idea that the wayyiqtol
is a sequential form.  The Hebrew writer is an artist among other things,
and he knows how to use his language to the best advantage.  We must give
him room for temporal overlay, paraphrase, leitmotif, slowing narrative
time, and, as you say, parallel threads. 

A couple things are going on with all these wayyiqtols is Gen 42, and with
42:8 specifically.  For one, the advance of time is by small steps.  As you
have pointed out, several events don't *need* to be sequential in a real
world.  The Hebrew writer in this way stretches narrative time, sort of
putting the camera into slow-motion, by using a preponderance of the
mainline narrative forms but actually describing very little progress.  In
this particular meeting between Jacob's sons, this nicely achieves the kind
of tension which is appropriate to a momentous event in the same way as
it's achieved in a movie at a critical moment.

Second, the particular type of case where the writer repeats a previous
event (called back-looping or back-referencing) with a wayyiqtol and then
resumes the narrative is temporal overlay.  This is what's going on in
42:8.  To, in a sense, refuse to demote the event to off-the-line material
the second time it is mentioned is basically at odds with the standard use
of the form.  On the other hand, the jarring use of the form creates
attention to the passage that is appropriate to its thematic importance. 
In this particular passage, the writer wanted to bring attention to this
tense meeting between the brothers and the important thematic root nkr.  In
a way the Joseph cycle (as well as the Judah/Tamar pericope) is about
"nkr-ing."  Jacob recognizes his son's special garment stained with blood
in Gen 37:33, but he fails to recognize the ruse of his hateful sons. 
Judah is then bested by Tamar's clever ruse when he recognizes the damning
evidence possessed by her in 38:26.  Joseph now in 42:7 and 8 recognizes
his brothers, but reconcilliation will only be possible when they recognize
and accept that Joseph is a favored man, something that is achieved through
the clever series of tests by the disguised (also the root nkr) Joseph.  

In summary, I would say that this momentous event and the repetition of the
root nkr (four times) in these verses are at just the strategic place for
the Hebrew writer to do something at odds with the verbal system in
general.  In fact, I would consider 42:8 to be an exception that proves the
rule, so to speak.

I'll try to get to your other questions in another post when I can.  

Shalom,
Bryan



B. M. Rocine
Associate Pastor
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13208

315-437-6744(w)
315-479-8267(h)