Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter_Kirk AT SIL.ORG]

"Gilead" seems to have several meanings in Judges 11. In verses 1 and 
2 he is a man, Jephthah's father - the same person as Manasseh's 
grandson (Num 27:1 etc) ??. In verses 5-11, it could be a region or a 
town, see also 12:7 ?? In verse 29, presumably Gilead is a region and 
Mizpeh Gilead is a specific location in that region. But in 10:17 
perhaps Mizpeh and Gilead are separate specific locations - perhaps 
there was a town called Gilead too as in Hosea 6:8. In the "Rand 
McNally Bible Atlas" (1956) Emil Kraeling reconstructs Gilead and 
Mizpeh as two separate but neighbouring cities, located between es 
Salt and the river Jabbok, in the region of Gilead. But I think it is 
possible to explain all the references with Gilead as a region, Mizpeh 
as a place within it.

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: Judges 11:29
Author:  lmartin AT vol.com at internet
Date:    13/02/1999 00:06


If the LXX reflects the original text of  Judges 11:29, then the last 
clause has no verb. I believe it would read:
"And the spirit of the Lord came upon Jephthah, and he passed over 
Gilead, and Manasseh, and he passed over Mizpeh of Gilead,  and from 
Mizpeh of Gilead to the other side of the children of Ammon."

I would appreciate any other examples of this kind, where a final clause 
does not repeat the verb.  Can any of you think of some examples that 
would parallel this one?  I am writing a paper on Judges, so this is 
very important to me.

By the way, the verb does not require the preposition "to." See Judges 
18:13.
Another question: What is the difference between "Gilead" in the second 
clause and "Mizpeh of Gilead" in the last clause?

--

Lee R. Martin
Pastor, Prospect Church of God, Cleveland, Tennessee 
Instructor in Hebrew and Old Testament
Church of God Theological Seminary
http://www.earth.vol.com/~lmartin/



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