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b-hebrew - Re[2]: Different verb forms - same meaning?

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  • From: Peter_Kirk AT SIL.ORG
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re[2]: Different verb forms - same meaning?
  • Date: Tue, 02 Feb 1999 12:13:46 -0500 (EST)



Let me take up Rolf's challenge, in the context of Bible translation.

In the following claims, who do you mean by "we"? Are you implying
that no-one should do any Bible translation until there is complete
consensus in the academic community? Will there ever be such
consensus? And do we have to treat all past translation work as
invalid and only let people read the original?

Or would it be acceptable to take the "we" to refer to a translation
team? Yes, it is right that translation team members study these
issues and come to their own conclusions (that's why I am following
this thread); thus they at least tacitly decide on which view to
follow in their translation work. I assume that Paul Zellmer's
approach is something like that, and his conclusions seem to be in
line with those of most if not all scholars. You can of course
question the conclusions at the basis of his work, but for you to
insist (in answer to his questions about specific verb forms) that he
reconsiders them, indeed changes them to agree with your conclusions,
in the middle of a project is not very helpful. Indeed, if he really
took up your challenge he would have to abandon his project, at least
until the indefinite future time when there is a consensus which you
and he can share.

Maybe you think translation projects should be abandoned. I do not.
The new ones being produced in new languages generally correspond on
such matters with long-standing Western translation traditions. If we
can accept that our own translations, though not perfect, at least do
more good than harm, let's get on with making similar translations
available for those who do not yet have any translation.

Peter Kirk

______________________________ Reply Separator
_________________________________
Subject: Re: Different verb forms - same meaning?
Author: furuli AT online.no at internet
Date: 01/02/1999 15:28

<snip>

Let me make a bold claim of which I hope the list members will respond:

(1) If we have not decided whether tense is grammaticalized in Biblical
Hebrew or not, and have an opinion of the meaning of particular morphologic
forms in relation to their grammaticalization or not, we are not able to
convey the message of the Bible in a faithful way.

(2) If we have not decided whether verb forms such as yiqtol and qatal have
an uncancellable meaning or not, i.e. whether or not the context can change
the aspect and/or tense of a particular form or not, we are not able to
convey the message of the Bible in a faithful way.

<snip>




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