Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter_Kirk AT SIL.ORG]

Let me take up Rolf's challenge, in the context of Bible translation.

In the following claims, who do you mean by "we"? Are you implying 
that no-one should do any Bible translation until there is complete 
consensus in the academic community? Will there ever be such 
consensus? And do we have to treat all past translation work as 
invalid and only let people read the original?

Or would it be acceptable to take the "we" to refer to a translation 
team? Yes, it is right that translation team members study these 
issues and come to their own conclusions (that's why I am following 
this thread); thus they at least tacitly decide on which view to 
follow in their translation work. I assume that Paul Zellmer's 
approach is something like that, and his conclusions seem to be in 
line with those of most if not all scholars. You can of course 
question the conclusions at the basis of his work, but for you to 
insist (in answer to his questions about specific verb forms) that he 
reconsiders them, indeed changes them to agree with your conclusions, 
in the middle of a project is not very helpful. Indeed, if he really 
took up your challenge he would have to abandon his project, at least 
until the indefinite future time when there is a consensus which you 
and he can share.

Maybe you think translation projects should be abandoned. I do not. 
The new ones being produced in new languages generally correspond on 
such matters with long-standing Western translation traditions. If we 
can accept that our own translations, though not perfect, at least do 
more good than harm, let's get on with making similar translations 
available for those who do not yet have any translation.

Peter Kirk

______________________________ Reply Separator 
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Subject: Re: Different verb forms - same meaning?
Author:  furuli AT online.no at internet
Date:    01/02/1999 15:28

<snip>

Let me make a bold claim of which I hope the list members will respond:

(1) If we have not decided whether tense is grammaticalized in Biblical 
Hebrew or not, and have an opinion of the meaning of particular morphologic 
forms in relation to their grammaticalization or not, we are not able to 
convey the message of the Bible in a faithful way.

(2) If we have not decided whether verb forms such as yiqtol and qatal have 
an uncancellable meaning or not, i.e. whether or not the context can change 
the aspect and/or tense of a particular form or not,  we are not able to 
convey the message of the Bible in a faithful way.

<snip>