Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter_Kirk AT sil.org]

Are you suggesting here that the 'el of 'el 'elohim is a construct 
form (as in Ps 136:2) with the meaning "God of gods"? Or is it in 
apposition, as translators have assumed in Gen 33:20, and presumably 
also in 'el shaddai?

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator 
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Subject: 'el 'elohim-->'elohim?
Author:  barre AT c-zone.net at internet
Date:    05/01/1999 19:29


Dear List Members,

The common explanation of the plural form of 'elohim as a "plural of 
majesty/intensity" strikes me as somewhat desparate (cp. TDOT "...difficult 
to explain.").  I am soliciting input on this issue and seek reactions to 
the possibility that the plural form arose as a result of an elision of the 
superlative construction--'el 'elohim.  Related superlative constructions 
are infrequent (Deut 10:17 ('elohe ha'elohim), Josh 22:2 ('el 'elohim), Ps 
136:2 ('elohe ha'elohim), Dan 2:47 ('elah 'elohin), Dan 11:36 ('el 
'elohim).  Theres is also the formal title of Gen 33:20 ('el 'elohe 
yisra'el).  Is the plural form the remnant of a abbreviation of divine 
titles such as 'el `elyon-->`elyon, 'el shaddai-->shaddai, and Yahweh 
Sabaoth-->yahweh?  How do interested list members access this theory over 
against the traditional understanding of how to explain the plural 'elohim 
that is customarily used as the subject of singular verbs?

Any thoughts?

Lloyd Barre






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