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  • From: Peter_Kirk AT sil.org
  • To: barre AT c-zone.net, b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: 'el 'elohim-->'elohim?
  • Date: Wed, 06 Jan 1999 15:24 -0500 (EST)



Are you suggesting here that the 'el of 'el 'elohim is a construct
form (as in Ps 136:2) with the meaning "God of gods"? Or is it in
apposition, as translators have assumed in Gen 33:20, and presumably
also in 'el shaddai?

Peter Kirk


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Subject: 'el 'elohim-->'elohim?
Author: barre AT c-zone.net at internet
Date: 05/01/1999 19:29


Dear List Members,

The common explanation of the plural form of 'elohim as a "plural of
majesty/intensity" strikes me as somewhat desparate (cp. TDOT "...difficult
to explain."). I am soliciting input on this issue and seek reactions to
the possibility that the plural form arose as a result of an elision of the
superlative construction--'el 'elohim. Related superlative constructions
are infrequent (Deut 10:17 ('elohe ha'elohim), Josh 22:2 ('el 'elohim), Ps
136:2 ('elohe ha'elohim), Dan 2:47 ('elah 'elohin), Dan 11:36 ('el
'elohim). Theres is also the formal title of Gen 33:20 ('el 'elohe
yisra'el). Is the plural form the remnant of a abbreviation of divine
titles such as 'el `elyon-->`elyon, 'el shaddai-->shaddai, and Yahweh
Sabaoth-->yahweh? How do interested list members access this theory over
against the traditional understanding of how to explain the plural 'elohim
that is customarily used as the subject of singular verbs?

Any thoughts?

Lloyd Barre






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