Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Lloyd Barre <barre AT c-zone.net>]

Dear Peter,

For Gen 33:20, I am taking 'el as appositional, in the other cases, where a
form of 'el is adjacent to 'elohim(n), I am following the ususal
understanding as a construct (superlative).  The El appellatives as we find
in Genesis (El Shaddai, El Elyon) I take as a personal name in apposition
to a divne attribute, eg. El Elyon="The Most High El." 

Lloyd


At 03:24 PM 1/6/99 -0500, Peter_Kirk AT sil.org wrote:
>
>Are you suggesting here that the 'el of 'el 'elohim is a construct 
>form (as in Ps 136:2) with the meaning "God of gods"? Or is it in 
>apposition, as translators have assumed in Gen 33:20, and presumably 
>also in 'el shaddai?
>
>Peter Kirk
>
>
>______________________________ Reply Separator
_________________________________
>Subject: 'el 'elohim-->'elohim?
>Author:  barre AT c-zone.net at internet
>Date:    05/01/1999 19:29
>
>
>Dear List Members,
>
>The common explanation of the plural form of 'elohim as a "plural of 
>majesty/intensity" strikes me as somewhat desparate (cp. TDOT "...difficult 
>to explain.").  I am soliciting input on this issue and seek reactions to 
>the possibility that the plural form arose as a result of an elision of the 
>superlative construction--'el 'elohim.  Related superlative constructions 
>are infrequent (Deut 10:17 ('elohe ha'elohim), Josh 22:2 ('el 'elohim), Ps 
>136:2 ('elohe ha'elohim), Dan 2:47 ('elah 'elohin), Dan 11:36 ('el 
>'elohim).  Theres is also the formal title of Gen 33:20 ('el 'elohe 
>yisra'el).  Is the plural form the remnant of a abbreviation of divine 
>titles such as 'el `elyon-->`elyon, 'el shaddai-->shaddai, and Yahweh 
>Sabaoth-->yahweh?  How do interested list members access this theory over 
>against the traditional understanding of how to explain the plural 'elohim 
>that is customarily used as the subject of singular verbs?
>
>Any thoughts?
>
>Lloyd Barre
>
>
>
>
>
>
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