Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryan Rocine" <596547 AT ican.net>]

hi Peter,

i haven't forgotten your Num 3 query.  just short on time.

there's no reason to be theologically worried about Exo 10:3.  take the ten
plagues as a whole:

plague 1: v. 7:23, P's heart hardened(agent of the hardening unspecified,
presumbaly it's the situation itself.)
2: v. 8:15, P hardened his own heart
3: v. 8:19, P's heart hardened
4: v. 8:32, P hardened his heart
5: v. 9:7, P's heart hardened
6: v. 9:12, YHWH hardens P's heart
7: vv 34-35, P hardens his heart and his heart hardens
8: v. 10:20, YHWH hardens P's heart
9: v. 10:27, YHWH hardens P's heart
10: v. 14:8, YHWH hardens P's heart

YHWH is not explicitly named as the one hardening P's heart until after it
is clearly established that P is hardening his own heart.  Plagues 8-9 are
paticularly interesting because P confesses to being sinful.  prior to this
P was only trying to  deceive Moses in his attempts to  gain quick relief
from the effects of the plagues.  this time he's teting to deceive YHWH
Himself, and it's then that the pattern of YHWH hardening P's heart is
clearly established.  P's cat-and-mouse game, btw, reminds me of sadaam
hussein's with the UN.

Shalom,
Bryan

----------
> From: Peter_Kirk AT sil.org
> To: 596547 AT ican.net; b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
> Subject: Exo 10:20
> Date: Monday, December 07, 1998 11:00 AM
> 
> 
> 
> Bryan wrote:
> 
> [snip]
> 
> another case in which the study of tense, aspect, and modality helps us
is 
> in Exo 10:20 re Pharaoh:  vay:xazzeq yhvh 'et leb par:`oh velo' $illax...

> Most English translations use the simple past for both verbs and 
> conjunction, "And YHWH hardened Pharaoh's heart, and he did not let the 
> children of Israel go."  But the study of tense, aspect and modality has 
> shown us that the qatal is not used in Biblical narrative to advance the 
> story time.  What that means is that YHWH did not harden P's heart, *and 
> then* P did not send forth the people where causation is left dubious. 
it 
> means that  the hardening and the (not) sending are wrapped up in one
event 
> so that causation is now explicit.  i like the KJV best:  "... the LORD 
> hardened Pharoah's heart so that he would not let..."
> 
> [snip]
> 
> Sorry, I don't like this KJV translation on other grounds, that it 
> prejudges an important theological issue which is left open in the 
> Hebrew. Or does the Hebrew clearly imply that YHWH caused Pharaoh's 
> action? How about taking QATAL here with pluperfect force: "the LORD 
> hardened Pharaoh's heart, for he had not let..."? Perhaps not quite fo 
> suitable to the context. But this is more "Arminian" against the KJV's 
> more "Calvinist" interpretation. Does the Hebrew clearly favour one 
> over the other? If not, best to stick to the neutral "and" even if the 
> Hebrew is not actually sequential.
> 
> Peter Kirk

B. M. Rocine
Associate Pastor
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13208

315-437-6744(w)
315-479-8267(h)