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  • From: Peter_Kirk AT sil.org
  • To: 596547 AT ican.net, b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Exo 10:20
  • Date: Mon, 07 Dec 1998 11:51 -0500 (EST)




Bryan wrote:

[snip]

another case in which the study of tense, aspect, and modality helps us is
in Exo 10:20 re Pharaoh: vay:xazzeq yhvh 'et leb par:`oh velo' $illax...
Most English translations use the simple past for both verbs and
conjunction, "And YHWH hardened Pharaoh's heart, and he did not let the
children of Israel go." But the study of tense, aspect and modality has
shown us that the qatal is not used in Biblical narrative to advance the
story time. What that means is that YHWH did not harden P's heart, *and
then* P did not send forth the people where causation is left dubious. it
means that the hardening and the (not) sending are wrapped up in one event
so that causation is now explicit. i like the KJV best: "... the LORD
hardened Pharoah's heart so that he would not let..."

[snip]

Sorry, I don't like this KJV translation on other grounds, that it
prejudges an important theological issue which is left open in the
Hebrew. Or does the Hebrew clearly imply that YHWH caused Pharaoh's
action? How about taking QATAL here with pluperfect force: "the LORD
hardened Pharaoh's heart, for he had not let..."? Perhaps not quite fo
suitable to the context. But this is more "Arminian" against the KJV's
more "Calvinist" interpretation. Does the Hebrew clearly favour one
over the other? If not, best to stick to the neutral "and" even if the
Hebrew is not actually sequential.

Peter Kirk




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